PERBEDAAN CISC DAN RISC
Complex Instruction Set Computing (CISC) atau kumpulan instruksi komputasi kompleks. Adalah suatu arsitektur komputer dimana setiap instruksi akan menjalankan beberapa operasi tingkat rendah, seperti pengambilan dari memori (load), operasi aritmatika, dan penyimpanan ke dalam memori (store) yang saling bekerja sama. Tujuan utama dari arsitektur CISC adalah melaksanakan suatu instruksi cukup dengan beberapa baris bahasa mesin yang relatif pendek sehingga implikasinya hanya sedikit saja RAM yang digunakan untuk menyimpan instruksi-instruksi tersebut. Arsitektur CISC menekankan pada perangkat keras karena filosofi dari arsitektur CISC yaitu bagaimana memindahkan kerumitan perangkat lunak ke dalam perangkat keras.
Misalkan, sebuah prosesor CISC sudah dilengkapi dengan sebuah instruksi khusus yang diberi nama MULT (dikenal sebagai complex instruction). Ketika dijalankan, instruksi akan membaca dua nilai kemudian menyimpannya ke dalam 2 register yang berbeda, melakukan operan perkalian di dalam unit eksekusi dan hasilnya dikembalikan lagi ke register yang benar. Maka instruksinya cukup satu baris yaitu :
MULT 2:3, 5:2
Sebelumnya, pada arsitektur RISC ketika menjalankan instruksi “MULT” maka akan dibagi menjadi 3 instruksi yaitu :
1. LOAD, digunakan untuk memindahkan data dari memori ke register.
2. PROD, digunakan untuk melakukan operasi perkalian yang berada di dalam register.
3. STORE, digunakan untuk memindahkan data dari register ke memori yang benar.
Maka instruksinya :
LOAD A, 2:3
LOAD B, 5:2
PROD A, B
STORE 2:3, A
“RISC dimaksudkan untuk menyederhanakan rumusan perintah sehingga lebih efisien dalam penyusunan kompiler yang ada.”
“RISC dimaksudkan untuk mengurangi jumlah siklus/detik setiap instruksi dibayar dengan bertambahnya jumlah instruksi per program.”
Tabel Perbandingan RICS dengan CISC
Fitur RICS PC/Desktop CISC
Daya Sedikit ratusan miliwatt Banyak watt
Kecepatan Komputasi 200-520 MHz 2-5 GHz
Manajemen Memori Direct, 32 bit Mappped
I/O Custom PC berbasis pilihan via BIOS
Environment High Temp, Low EM Emissions Need Fans, FCC/CE approval an issue
Struktur Interupsi Custom, efisien, dan sangat cepat Seperti PC
Port Sistem Operasi Sulit, membutuhkan BSP level rendah. Load and Go
Kamis, 03 Maret 2011
Jumat, 07 Januari 2011
Lab 10.0.2.2 Finding the Right Networking Job
Lab 10.0.2.2 Finding the Right Networking Job
Step 1: Perform a Skills Strength and Interest Assessment
Step 2: Search a job website for a possible IT position
Step 3: Create a résumé and cover letter
Step 4: Reflection
What other areas related to applying for a job are not covered in this particular lab?
• Interviews: types of interviews that can be conducted, potential questions asked in interviews, preparing for an interview
· wawancara : tipe wawancara, pertanyaan berbobot yang ditanyakan saat interview, persiapan wawancara
· negosiasi mengenai gaji dan keuntungan yang didapat
Rabu, 05 Januari 2011
CCNA 2 module 6 exam
CCNA Discovery 1 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission
Jawaban : the IP address of a web server
3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
• DNS
• DHCP
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
Jawaban:
4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP
Jawaban:
5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP Jawaban:
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP Jawaban:
6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation Jawaban:
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation Jawaban:
-aplication
-internet
-Network Access
7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.
Jawaban:
8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server
Jawaban
9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP
Jawaban:
DNS
10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP
11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110
Jawab:
25
12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP
Jawab:
SMTP
13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging
• blog
• web mail
• instant messaging
Jawab
instant messaging
14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.
Jawab:
The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering
Jawab:
protocol layering
16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information
Jawab:
- destination MAC address
- source MAC address
- error-checking information
17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses
Jawab:
source and destination IP addresses
18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3
Jawab:
1
19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer
Jawab:
removes the IP header
20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits
Jawab:
1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
Jawab:
It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
Jawab:
physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer
3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.
5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a phased installation
6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• replacement of defected hardware
7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a software warranty
8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.
9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the terms and conditions
10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the characterization of the existing network
11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.
13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• wireless NICs
• wireless access points
14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• replacement of defective physical media
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware
16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• internal management
17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.
18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation
19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the steps to install and test the network
20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer
3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.
5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a phased installation
6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• replacement of defected hardware
7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a software warranty
8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.
9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the terms and conditions
10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the characterization of the existing network
11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.
13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• wireless NICs
• wireless access points
14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• replacement of defective physical media
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware
16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• internal management
17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.
18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation
19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the steps to install and test the network
20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
CCNA Discovery 4 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• network
3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• DES
6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• FECN
7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• Inverse ARP
8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• inactive
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.
12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.
15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption
• encapsulation
16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• DLCI
18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• DLCI 100
20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• HDLC
25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.
• administrative distance
2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• network
3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• DES
6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• FECN
7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• Inverse ARP
8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• inactive
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.
12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.
15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption
• encapsulation
16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• DLCI
18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• DLCI 100
20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• HDLC
25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.
CCNA discovery 4 module 7 exam answers version 4.0
1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• port security at the access design layer
5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• designated
9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show interfaces trunk
10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• a network simulator
13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• forwarding
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• port security at the access design layer
5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• designated
9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show interfaces trunk
10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• a network simulator
13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• forwarding
CCNA discovery 4 module 6 exam answer version 4.0
1. A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.
2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist
3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network
5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.16/29
6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.252.0
7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 128
9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.192.0
11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.97/27
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.240
21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/27
25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• OSPF
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.
2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist
3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network
5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.16/29
6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.252.0
7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 128
9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.192.0
11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.97/27
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.240
21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/27
25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• OSPF
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