CCNA labskill chapter 3

Lab 3

Step 1: Identify the RAM in a computer

·      With Windows XP, there are two ways to view control panels: Classic View and Category View. The options available depend on which one of these two views you are using. If you see the Switch to Category View option on the left, you are currently in the classic view mode. If Switch to Classic View is displayed, you are currently in Category View mode. For this step, you want to use Classic View mode.

·      From the Start menu, select Control Panel. In the Control Panel, choose System to open the System Properties dialog box. Alternatively, you can get this information by clicking the Start button and right clicking the My Computer icon. Next, choose Properties from the drop-down menu. The computer operating system and service pack information are listed in the upper part of the dialog box. The computer processor type, speed, and memory are listed in the lower portion.

·      In this example, the computer processor is a Pentium 4 processor with a clock speed of 3.20 gigahertz (GHz). Clock speed is a measurement of the number of cycles per second that a processor is capable of doing. The number of cycles impacts the number of instructions per second that the CPU can process. A higher clock speed generally means that a processor is capable of executing more instructions per second. The computer has 448 MB of RAM available for the CPU.

·      Check your computer and determine the amount of RAM available to the CPU. How much RAM is inyour computer?

è   1,99 GB of RAM

Step 2: Determine the size of the hard disk drive

1.      Determine the size of the hard drive on your computer. What is the total size of the hard drive in GB?

·                19,5 GB

2.      What is the used space of your hard drive in GB?

·                8,06 GB

3.      What is the free space of your hard drive in GB?

·                11,4 GB

Step 4: Check for other storage devices

4.      How many drive letters are shown in the window that appears?

·           Five drive

Step 5: Reflection

·           Why is it important to know the amount of RAM in your computer?

è  RAM is the actual workarea. All the calculation are the calculation are done in CPU and result and data is stored first on RAM and yhen transferred to harddisk. So it is the most important one.

·           Why is the size of a hard drive as well as the space being used important?

è  The size of hard disk and the space used is important only for those who were running out hard disk space and not or those who don’t have enough data to upload on their hard disk so the size of the hard disk and space used is important depending upon how an individual use the hardisk space.

CCNA labskill chapter 1

Lab 1

Step 1: Determine the Windows XP version and revision number

1.      I has installed my computer whichWindows 7 Ultimate.

2.      Physical memory available to windows is  2.087.276 KB

3.      Memory important to an operating system becauseMemory does store temporary files from software and OS. The memory does not store the temporary files from software and OS. These files Should Be fast Pls reached a user application needs those files. These files must be achieved quickly when the application requires the file. Example: You're working with a word proccesor and you're typing. Example: You work with proccesor word and you type. Everything you type would be stored in the memory Sow you do not lose the data you're Until you save That data on you're hard drive it stays in the memory if the application is running. Everything you type will be stored in the memory sow you will not lose your data until you save the data on your hard drive is still in memory when the application is running.

4.      ”Installation and use.  You may install, use, access, display and run one copy of the Software on a  single computer, such as a workstation, terminal or device ("Workstation Computer"). The Software may not be used by more than two (2) processors at any one   time on any single Workstation Computer.”

According  the license agreement, windows can be backup copies only one time.

Step 2: Configure Windows XP for updates

1.    four options are available for automatic updates is :

·      Automatic (recommended) Option

·      Download Updates for Me, But Let Me Choose When to Install Them Option

·      Notify Me But Don't Automatically Download or Install Them Option

·      Turn Off Automatic Updates Option

2.         based the information if updates are process but suddenly disconnect to the internet  “if you disconnect from internet before updates are fully downloaded, nothing is lost. The download will be continue the next time you connect to the internet”

3.        update is daily updates, it nothing speciall time for update. But you are free to choose what time you want to update.

4.    the current setting is automatic, because the vendor of windows always renewing all the components of windows for optimazed the all process.

5.  Another way of configuring a system for automatic updates, .   Are the options the same as before

”through the System control panel. Click the Start button, click the Control Panel option, and double-click the System control panel icon. Click on the Automatic Updates tab”.

Step 3: Determine an application version

1.      application version is version 9.0.0

2.      applications have a Check for Updates option

3.      Internet access need Check for Updates option, because vendor has a official site to all abaut this program.

4.      When is it important to get an update for an application or an operating system?

If the notification has shown to user. That product release new version or the product give alert that has out of that.

CCNA labskill chapter 2

Lab 2

Step 1: Diagram the network 

·           Which kind of cable is required for a direct Ethernet connection between the two PCs is crossover cable

Step 2: Document the PCs

PC1 Name:	Komputer 1
PC2 Name:	Komputer 2

·           important that each PC on a network have a unique name because its making easier for users to connect to shared resources and that help to identify other device and its locations

Step 3: Connect the Ethernet cable

·           Use the Ethernet crossover cable provided by the instructor. Plug one end of the cable into the Ethernet NIC of PC1.

·           Plug the other end of the cable into the Ethernet NIC of PC2. As you insert the cable you shouldhear a click which indicates that the cable connector is properly inserted into the port.

Step 4: Verify physical connectivity

 

Step 5: Configure IP settings

1.      Configure the logical addresses for the two PCs so that they are able to communicate using TCP/IP.On one of the PCs, go to the Control Panel, double click the Network Connections icon, and then right click the connected Local Area Connection icon. Choose Properties from the pull-down menu.

2.      Using the scroll bar in the Local Area Connection Properties window, scroll down to highlight Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). Click the Properties button.

 

3.      Select the Use the following IP address radio button and enter the following information:

IP Address	192.168.1.1
Subnet Mask	255.255.255.0

4.      Ok.

Step 6: Verify IP connectivity between the two PCs

.

1.      On PC1, on the Windows XP desktop, click Start. From the Start menu, select Control Panel, and double-click Network Connections.

2.      Right-click the Local Area Connection icon and select Properties. Click the Advanced tab. Locate and click the Settings button.

3.      Make a note of whether the firewall settings are ENABLED (ON) for the Ethernet port or DISABLED (OFF) for the Ethernet port.

ü  Firewall are enabled (ON)

4.      If the firewall settings are enabled, click the Off (not recommended) radio button to disable the firewall. The setting will be re-enabled in a later step. Click OK in this dialog box and the following to apply this setting.

5.      Now that the two PCs are physically connected and configured correctly with IP addresses, we need to make sure they communicate with each other. The ping command is a simple way to accomplish this task. The ping command is included with the Windows XP operating system.

6.      On PC1, go to Start, then Run. Type cmd, and then click OK. A Windows command prompt window will appear as shown in the figure below.

7.      At the > prompt, type ping 192.168.1.2 and press Enter. A successful ping will verify the IP connectivity. It should produce results similar to those shown in here.

 

Step 7: Verify connectivity using My Network Places

 

1.    Do you see an icon for the other PC in your peer-to-peer network?

·           Yes I do.

2.    What is the name of the other PC?

·           Its name is Komputer 2

3.    Is it the same name you recorded in Step 2?

·           Yes it is

CCNA DISCOVERY 2 MODULE 5

1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.

2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• user EXEC mode

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• all configured passwords

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• privileged EXEC mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

11.

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• domain name
• enable secret password

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PPP

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip route

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• Telnet

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID

20.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• clocking for the synchronous link

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

CCNA DISCOVERY 2 MODULE 4

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 256

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11100111

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254


4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class C

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 30

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.32.255

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 128

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 128 to 191

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A

14.

refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 1025 and above

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved scalability
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA discovery 1 module 7 exam answers version 4.0

1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• has higher power output

2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of adding additional devices

3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• mobility
• reduced installation time

4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices

5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link

8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• wireless client

9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.

11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• SSID Broadcast

12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID

13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.

14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open

15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication

16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• EAP
• pre-shared keys

17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.

18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• encryption

19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• traffic filtering


20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 64 bit
• 128 bit

21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on

CCNA discovery 1 module 8 exam answers version 4.0

1. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• vishing
• phishing
• pretexting

2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by phone

3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse

4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• SYN flooding

6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• popups

7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• spam

8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• acceptable use

9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.

10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.

11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• appliance-based

12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• DMZ

13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.

14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• internal

15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet

16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment

18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.

19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• a change of the default IP address

21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.